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- ITIL Foundation v.3 Version 1.1 Part1
- Vendor: EXIN
- Code: EX0-101
- Exam Name: ITIL Foundation v.3
- QUESTION 1
- Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
- A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
- B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
- C. Web front-end
- D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 2
- What is a RACI model used for?
- A. Defining roles and responsibilities
- B. Monitoring services
- C. Performance analysis
- D. Recording Configuration Items
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 3
- Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
- A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
- B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
- C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
- (CMDB)
- D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 4
- The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
- A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
- B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
- C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
- D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 5
- In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
- Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
- A. Service Transition
- B. Service Design
- C. Service Strategy
- D. Service Operation
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 6
- Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
- A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize the
- cost of training them
- B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
- supervisory roles
- C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and
- this helps to minimize salaries
- D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep
- them in the role where they have been trained
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 7
- Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
- A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management Databases
- (CMDB)
- B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
- C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
- D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 8
- Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
- A. Services and Infrastructure
- B. Applications and Infrastructure
- C. Resources and Capabilities
- D. Utility and Warranty
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 9
- Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
- A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
- B. The design of Market Spaces
- C. The design of new or changed services
- D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 10
- Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
- A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
- B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
- C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
- D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 11
- Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
- A. Service Catalogue Manager
- B. IT Designer/Architect
- C. Process Manager
- D. Supplier Manager
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 12
- Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
- A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
- B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
- C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
- D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 13
- A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
- A. The contract is being negotiated
- B. The contract is about to be ended
- C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
- D. The contract has been agreed
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 14
- Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
- A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
- B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
- C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
- D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 15
- The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
- A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
- B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
- C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
- D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 16
- Which of the following module would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational structure?
- A. RACI model
- B. Service Model
- C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
- D. The Deming Cycle
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 17
- Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
- A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill tominimize the
- cost of training them
- B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep
- them in the role where they have been trained
- C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or
- supervisory roles
- D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and
- this helps to minimize salaries
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 18
- Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
- 1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
- 2. What services to offer and to whom?
- 3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
- A. 3 only
- B. 1 only
- C. 2 only
- D. All of the above
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 19
- Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
- A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
- B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
- C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
- D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 20
- How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
- A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
- B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement
- Continual Improvement
- C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement
- Continual Improvement
- D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 21
- Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) step improvement process, data needs to be gathered and
- analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the QUESTION "Did we get there?"?
- A. Service Strategy
- B. Service Design
- C. Service Operation
- D. Service Transition
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 22
- Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
- 1. Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements
- 2. Designing the service so it can meet the targets
- 3. Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
- A. 1 and 3 only
- B. All of the above
- C. 2 and 3 only
- D. 1 and 2 only
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 23
- Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration Management?
- A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager; Configuration
- Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
- B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager; Configuration
- Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
- C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change Manager
- D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; Configuration control
- board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 24
- In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.
- It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
- A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
- B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
- C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
- D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 25
- Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
- B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
- C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
- D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 26
- The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
- A. Business Value
- B. Functionality
- C. IT Assets
- D. Service Level Requirements
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 27
- Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?
- A. Whether to buy an application or build it
- B. Should application development be outsourced
- C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
- D. Where the vendor of an application is located
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 28
- What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
- A. Service Solution
- B. Customer / Business Needs
- C. Service Release
- D. Service Requirements
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 29
- What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
- A. Customer / Business Needs
- B. Service Release
- C. Service Requirements
- D. Service Solution
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 30
- Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
- A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
- B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
- C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
- D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 31
- Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
- A. Service Desk
- B. Facilities Management
- C. Technical Management
- D. IT Operations Control
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 32
- Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
- 1. Local Service Desk
- 2. Virtual Service Desk
- 3. IT Help Desk
- 4. Follow the Sun
- A. 2, 3 and 4 only
- B. 1, 2 and 4 only
- C. 1, 2 and 3 only
- D. 1, 3 and 4 only
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 33
- "Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the
- form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
- A. Markets and Customers
- B. Functions and Processes
- C. People, products and technology
- D. Applications and Infrastructure
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 34
- Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
- A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
- B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
- C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
- D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested 13
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 35
- Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
- A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
- B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
- C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
- D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 36
- Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their
- targets?
- A. Availability Management
- B. Service Level Management
- C. Continual Service Improvement
- D. Business Relationship Management
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 37
- What are the three Service Provider business models?
- A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
- B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
- C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
- D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 38
- Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
- A. Data
- B. Knowledge
- C. Wisdom
- D. Information
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 39
- Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
- A. Incident Management
- B. Request Fulfillment
- C. Release and Deployment Management
- D. Access management
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 40
- Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- 1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation
- 2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
- A. Both of the above
- B. Neither of the above
- C. 2 only
- D. 1 only
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 41
- The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
- A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
- B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
- C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
- D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 42
- Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
- A. Overall business risk is optimized
- B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
- C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
- D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management
- system
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 43
- How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
- A. By installing changes to fix problems
- B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
- C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
- D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 44
- Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
- B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
- C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
- D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 45
- Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part of which
- process?
- A. Service Portfolio Management
- B. Service Level Management
- C. Component Capacity Management
- D. Demand Management
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 46
- Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
- A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.
- B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
- C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
- D. Provide training and certification in project management.
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 47
- Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
- A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
- B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service
- C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred
- D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 48
- The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
- A. The design and development of new services
- B. The design and development of service improvements
- C. The design and development of services and service management processes
- D. The day-to-day operation and support of services
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 49
- How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
- A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
- B. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement
- Continual Improvement
- C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
- D. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement
- Continual Improvement
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 50
- Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
- A. Access management
- B. Request Fulfillment
- C. Release and Deployment Management
- D. Incident Management
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 51
- To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
- A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
- B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
- C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
- D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 52
- Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the following items
- need to be identified?
- A. Business Objectives, IT Objectives, Process Metrics
- B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
- C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
- D. Business and IT Strategy and Process Definitions
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 53
- Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
- 1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
- 2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function
- A. 2 only
- B. 1 only
- C. Neither of the above
- D. Both of the above
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 54
- Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service Asset?
- A. Resources and Capabilities
- B. Services and Infrastructure
- C. Utility and Warranty
- D. Applications and Infrastructure
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 55
- Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
- A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
- B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
- C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
- D. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 56
- What is the definition of an Alert?
- A. An error message to the user of an application
- B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
- C. A type of Incident
- D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 57
- Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
- A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software
- media)
- B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre- defined approval
- and qualification process exists
- C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
- D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for
- obtaining them
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 58
- The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
- A. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
- B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
- C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
- D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 59
- Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
- A. Data
- B. Wisdom
- C. Information
- D. Knowledge
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 60
- Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
- A. It is measurable
- B. Delivers specific results
- C. A method of structuring an organization
- D. Responds to specific events
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 61
- Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?
- A. IT Designer/Architect
- B. Process Manager
- C. Service Catalogue Manager
- D. Supplier Manager
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 62
- Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
- A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
- B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
- C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
- D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 63
- The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
- A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual components
- B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and effectiveness
- C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology metrics
- include availability and capacity
- D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics measure the
- infrastructure
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 64
- The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
- A. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
- B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
- C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
- D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form of services
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 65
- Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
- A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred
- B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
- C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT Service
- D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 66
- Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the
- agreed and documented process?
- A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
- B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
- C. The Service Desk Manager
- D. The Service Manager
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 67
- Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
- A. IT Service Continuity Management
- B. Service Level Management
- C. Service Catalogue Management
- D. Capacity Management
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 68
- Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
- B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
- C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
- D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 69
- The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?
- A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
- B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
- C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
- D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 70
- What is a RACI model used for?
- A. Performance analysis
- B. Recording Configuration Items
- C. Defining roles and responsibilities
- D. Monitoring services
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 71
- Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
- A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
- B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
- C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
- D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of
- achieving Best Practice"
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 72
- Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
- A. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
- B. A change that is made as the result of an audit
- C. A change that correctly follows the required change process
- D. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 73
- What are the three Service Provider business models?
- A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
- B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
- C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
- D. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 74
- Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
- A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives
- B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of
- achieving Best Practice"
- C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
- D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 75
- A Service Level Agreement is?
- A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
- B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
- C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
- D. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 76
- One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
- A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
- B. Only requirements needed and agreed
- C. Only capabilities needed and agreed
- D. Only resources and capabilities needed
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 77
- Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the
- agreed and documented process?
- A. The Service Desk Manager
- B. The Service Manager
- C. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
- D. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 78
- Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
- A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture,
- processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
- organization
- B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
- C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the
- service designs that are produced
- D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 79
- Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
- A. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
- B. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
- C. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
- D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 80
- Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services
- are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
- A. Extreme focus on cost
- B. Extreme focus on responsiveness
- C. Vendor focused
- D. Extreme internal focus
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 81
- Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
- A. Where are we now?
- B. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
- C. Prepare for action
- D. Define what you should measure
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 82
- Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
- A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
- B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture,
- processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
- organization
- C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the
- service designs that are produced
- D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 83
- In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability
- Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
- A. Service Operation
- B. Service Transition
- C. Service Strategy
- D. Service Design
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 84
- Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the
- agreed and documented process?
- A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
- B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
- C. The Service Manager
- D. The Service Desk Manager
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 85
- Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
- A. IT Service Continuity Management
- B. Service Catalogue Management
- C. Capacity Management
- D. Service Level Management
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 86
- Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
- A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
- B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software andlicences
- C. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
- D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and
- protected
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 87
- The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
- A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
- B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
- C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
- D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 88
- Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
- A. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management
- system
- B. Overall business risk is optimized
- C. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
- D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 89
- Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
- A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
- B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
- C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application
- D. Assisting in the design of the application
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 90
- What is a RACI model used for?
- A. Defining roles and responsibilities
- B. Performance analysis
- C. Recording Configuration Items
- D. Monitoring services
- Answer: A
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 91
- Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
- A. Prepare for action
- B. Define what you should measure
- C. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
- D. Where are we now?
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 92
- What is the definition of an Alert?
- A. A type of Incident
- B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
- C. An error message to the user of an application
- D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 93
- Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?
- A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity
- B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff manage
- infrastructure devices not services
- C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a service has
- been disrupted
- D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal service.
- This includes technical staff
- Answer: B
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 94
- To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
- A. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
- B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
- C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
- D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 95
- In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome be in terms of
- responsiveness to customer needs?
- A. Customers needs will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with fewer
- failures to disrupt timely delivery
- B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on responsiveness of overemphasis
- on stability
- C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be made fully
- aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
- D. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer and customers needs may not be met within business
- timescales
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 96
- Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
- A. Knowledge
- B. Data
- C. Information
- D. Wisdom
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 97
- Major Incidents require?
- A. Less documentation
- B. Longer timescales
- C. Less urgency
- D. Separate procedures
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 98
- Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
- A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
- B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
- C. The design of Market Spaces
- D. The design of new or changed services
- Answer: C
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 99
- Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
- A. Eliminating recurring Incidents
- B. Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
- C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
- D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and Minimizing adverse impact on the business
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- http://www.dumps.01world.in
- QUESTION 100
- Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
- A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
- B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
- C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses
- D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and
- protected
- Answer: D
- Section: (none)
- Explanation/Reference:
- Explanation:
- - See more at: http://www.dumps.01world.in/2012/07/itil-foundation-v3-version-11-part1.html#sthash.s1PhAagx.dpuf
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